Adam Neely recently made a video about the minor 9th and why he 'kind of agrees' with the advice that it shouldn't be used outside of a dominant 7th chord (as a harmonic interval). This prompted me to make a video arguing that it shouldn't be avoided so much and I give examples of some of my favourite tunes that is use it to great effect. https://youtu.be/jXPtIDF7t1E Here are the timecodes to each example Bach - Air on the G string 1:23 Bill Evans - Waltz for Debby 2:20 Bill Evans - Star Eyes 3:33 Bill Evans - Nardis 5:27 Bud Powell - Autumn in New York 6:47 Chopin - Ballade no.1 7:47
Also listen to the opening of Starman - David Bowie
So, I've been doing everyday interval exercises from toned ear for like 8 months and now I can hit like 60-70 out of 100 intervals, melodic and harmonic in a session. But, there are days that I'm so bad at it, like, I can fail really easy intervals and get, I don't know, 45-40 right out of 100. And the next day hit 80 out of 100 easily. Is that normal or it should be more consistent?
I’ve been playing piano for about two years now btw Yo guys I’ve just found I’ve been reading one of the hardest passages wrong lol, can I post a different Chopin piece, then I’ll post the C# minor nocturne in a few days?
I am reading Tim Urdan "Statistics in plain English".
Here is what they said about the confidence intervals (relevant bits underlined in red)
So I have just started my training with recognizing intervals by ear, and I found it easiest and quickest to have codes for recognizing the said intervals. For example, when finding a major 3rd, I just outline a major chord. When finding a perfect fourth, I look for the melody of the first two notes of "amazing grace" (since it is a perfect fourth). I can't find one to recognize a minor 6th though. Does anyone have any tips?
If someone is playing the minor scale or a pentatonic, or any other one, and they reference a 5th or 3rd etc, you always count by using the major scale and the respective note as the tonic or first scale degree, correct?
Here we go - this is Boris’s roadmap out of lockdown
If this whole affair has proved anything, this is a Government by leak and that this has been “leaked” to test public opinion or lessen the shock when the plan is announced.
Completely disproportionate to the threat level and way too late. No clear end to social distancing and some venues unable to open until July.
Hi, I hope this post find you in good health.
As a new lockdown hit my city I’ve been working a little bit with statistics and confidence intervals. Now if I’ve understood confidence intervals correctly (if not, please do correct me), we may say that a confidence interval of, say 95%, is a proportion. That is, if we did a large collection of confidence intervals then 95% of those would contain the population parameter. The individual intervals themselves are not a matter of probability; a interval either does or does not contain the parameter.
Assuming all of these statements are correct, what does a single confidence interval actually tell us? I know we may use it for hypothesis testing but apart from that, what is its purpose as a standalone result? I think I understand a large collection and how the outer boundaries of the more extreme intervals make it clear in which interval the parameter must lie. But I find it hard to see the use of a single confidence interval.
Would any of you be able to clear this up for me? Thank you in advance!
EDIT: Thank you guys so much for your comments. I have gained a new perspective on confidence intervals as a whole and it's all thanks to you.
It’s resulted in no specific results so far.
I’m just starting out in my Theory I class and we’re talking about how different notes are consonant and dissonant. My question is — why are the 6ths considered consonant, while the 2nds are considered dissonant? It seems like they’re in the same boat where they want to resolve down to a home base (either tonic or dominant) but for some reason the 2nd is dissonant. Thanks in advance!
I'm now in week 3 of my Strava training plan (figured I would give one a try, as they are included with membership) and today's interval workout looks like it will be very tough.
Motivation is no problem, but the prospect of such a hard workout is quite daunting. Do you have any rituals or thought processes you like to go through when you know you have a difficult effort coming up?
As title says. You know when you want to buy a stock, do you just buy in one go or do you ever average it out across a day or even a greater period then that in an attempt to average a price down?
For instance at market open you could buy 30%, mid dayish 40%, market close the remaining 30%.
Now ofc this isn’t for a short term hold, and perhaps this is more tuned for a high investment. But I’m curious if anyone does this or what people think of it
I’m not saying buy at intentionally high prices just because of the time day, the market open and market close purchases are kind fixed but you have a bit of wriggle room with the mid day purchase as in that can be a a larger time scale and even a larger percentage, maybe bump the mid up to 60% and the market open/close down to 20%. And just make the mid purchase at the best time of course.
All your doing is averaging it out across the day, but what kind of time scale for holding a stock would this benefit. Long term for sure but in terms of days/weeks is it still viable? Or is it not worth it all?
I saw some broker mention it on a YouTube video, and he was like if you tell an investor this is what you did, they can’t ever be unhappy with that.
I kinda like the idea or is it just doing it for the sake of it?
Please forgive me if this is a stupid question. I am not formally trained in statistics, although should have a basic understanding to interpret research in my field. I had the notion that, for risk differences or hazard ratios, if the CI includes 0 or 1 respectively, that would mean a not significant result, and thus a p > 0.05.
However, this was not the case in this study I came across:
What impressed me the most was how low the p-value was despite the CI for risk reduction in mortality being so wide. Upon reading the full results, they state that:
>§The p value is based on the one-sided non-inferiority test.
What does that mean exactly and how does this makes it possible for the CI to include the null hypothesis value?
The full text is available here.
"To determine the size of an interval, ignore accidentals"
so for example, if we take the C note its 2nd interval is D (C-D). So we ignored the C#, is that due to the D note having a span of two steps in the C major scale? Or does "ignoring the accidentals" have a different meaning to it?
I have read about how 5 and 7 equal temperament systems were used in places like Indonesia and Thailand, and this got me thinking if there are cultures which are the reverse of this. So far, the largest number I have heard of is imo 24-TET in Arabic music, or other niche variants perhaps are larger.